Post by anon on Apr 29, 2005 7:09:42 GMT -5
i'm currently writing an essay about the influence of 19th century Germany in creating a climate for the growth of Nazism
im looking at racial policy and my tutor has said to focus on hitlers idea of the nordic/teutonic race as being a new idea in the sense it was not focused on by intellectuals in the 19th century. And that rather than the idea existing in the 19th century it harks back thousands of year.
Im having trouble actually proving this point to be true however since chamberlain clearly spoke of the superiority of the ayran race
however im also having problems understanding what teutonic is?
any thoughts would be appreciated!
im looking at racial policy and my tutor has said to focus on hitlers idea of the nordic/teutonic race as being a new idea in the sense it was not focused on by intellectuals in the 19th century. And that rather than the idea existing in the 19th century it harks back thousands of year.
Im having trouble actually proving this point to be true however since chamberlain clearly spoke of the superiority of the ayran race
however im also having problems understanding what teutonic is?
any thoughts would be appreciated!
